I have long wearied of the tiresome assertion that Shakespeare did not write Shakespeare. This phillipic by Ron Rosenbaum against the cinematic albatross Anonymous is three months old, but punctures the key argument of the Oxford fantasy:
In the opening, our fancy-pants British narrator (Derek Jacobi) tells us disdainfully that Shakespeare only had a “grammar school” education, disingenuously concealing the fact that the typical “grammar school” of the time, such as the one in Shakespeare’s hometown Stratford, had graduates who had learned how to translate and compose verse in Latin. Can you compose verse in Latin? How many American poets can? How many Oxfordians can even read Latin? As Simon Schama, the British historian, put it recently:
“Grammar school,” which means elementary education in America, was in fact a cradle of serious classical learning in Elizabethan England. By the time he was 13 or so, Shakespeare would have read (in Latin) works by Terence, Plautus, Virgil, Erasmus, Cicero, and probably Plutarch and Livy too. One of the great stories of the age was what such schooling did for boys of humble birth.
So, if someone of Shakespeare’s education could have written those plays, then does it not violate Ockham’s Razor to insist that another man wrote them? What, besides simply snobbery, does Oxfordianism satisfy?